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8011 exam collection: Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam & 8011 torrent VCE

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q78-Q83):

NEW QUESTION # 78
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital under Basel II, negative regulatory capital charges for any of the business units:

A. Should be ignored completely
B. Should be offset against positive capital charges from other business units
C. Should be excluded from capital calculations
D. Should be included after ignoring the negative sign

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Basel II, in any given year, negative capital charges (resulting from negative gross income) in any business line may offset positive capital charges in other business lines without limit. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 79
What percentage of average annual gross income is to be held as capital for operational risk under the basic indicator approach specified under Basel II?

A. 0.125
B. 0.08
C. 0.15
D. 0.12

Answer: C

Explanation:
Banks using the basic indicator approach must hold 15% of the average annual gross income for the past three years, excluding any year that had a negative gross income. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 80
For an option position with a delta of 0.3, calculate VaR if the VaR of the underlying is $100.

A. 0
B. 33.33
C. 1
D. 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
The first order approximation of the VaR of an option position is nothing but the VaR of the underlying multiplied by the option's delta. This is intuitive because the delta is the sensitivity of the option price to changes in the prices of the underlying, and in this case since the delta is 0.3 and the underlying's VaR is
$100, the VaR of the options position is 0.3 x $100 = $30. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
(Note that the second order approximation of the VaR of an options position considers the option gamma too, and VaR reduces if gamma increases.)

NEW QUESTION # 81
As part of designing a reverse stress test, at what point should a bank's business plan be considered unviable (ie the point where it can be considered to have failed)?

A. Where large known losses have been incurred on the bank's positions
B. When the regulatory capital of the bank has been exhausted
C. Where EBITDA for the year is forecast to be negative
D. When the realization of risks leads market participants to lose confidence in the bank as a counterparty or a business worthy of funding

Answer: D

Explanation:
As part of a reverse stress test, a firm has to identify and assess the scenarios most likely to cause it to fail, or in other words using the language used by the FSA in the UK, for its current business plan to become unviable. A firm's business plan should be considered to become unviable at the point that crystallizing risks cause the market to lose confidence it it, with the consequence that counterparties and other stakeholders are unwilling to transact with it or provide capital to the firm and, where releant, that existing counterparties may seek to terminate their contracts. Recent experience suggests that this point is reached well before a firm's regulatory capital is exhausted.
Large known losses, or negative EBITDA (earnings before interest , tax, depreciation and amortization) may be indicators or contribute to the loss of confidence, but do not of themselves make the current business plan unviable. Therefore Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 82
The results of 'desk-level' stress tests cannot be added together to arrive at institution wide estimates because:

A. Desk-level stress tests focus on desk specific risks that may be minor or irrelevant in the larger scheme at the institution level.
B. Desk-level stress tests tend to focus on extreme movements in risk parameters (such as volatility) without considering economy wide scenarios that may represent more realistic and consistent situations for the institution.
C. All of the above
D. Desk-level stress tests tend to ignore higher level risks that are relevant to the institution but completely outside the control of the individual desks.

Answer: B

Explanation:
All the above listed reasons are valid explanations as to why an institution level stress test cannot be estimated by merely summing up the results of the stress tests of the individual desks.

NEW QUESTION # 83
......

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